NORCET exam Model Test Paper part 1

 AIIMS HACK has come up with Model Papers keeping in mind the exam pattern and convenience of the students. Through this syllabus, one can prepare for the NORCET Exam based on the latest prescribed syllabus. To solve a maximum number of objective-type questions of any exam, you must regularly practice solving objective-type questions of that level.

These Model Test Papers Series papers have been prepared to keep in mind the entire syllabus. A detailed explanation of all questions has been provided to prepare one question for multiple questions. Interpretation of one question can generally lead to the preparation of 2-3 questions. By these Model papers, AIIMS HACK to provide 360-degree guidance needed to crack the exam.

 

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NORCET exam Model Test Paper

Q. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of roundworm infestation

1point

Fluconazole

Albendazole

Cotrimoxazole

Ornidazole

Q. Patrick who is diagnosed with liver cirrhosis is experiencing symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. The physician ordered 50 ml of Lactulose p.o. every 2 hours. Patrick suddenly develops diarrhea. The nurse best action would be:

1 point

A. “I’ll see if your physician is in the hospital”.

B. “Maybe you’re reacting to the drug; I will withhold the next dose”.

C. “I’ll lower the dosage as ordered so the drug causes only 2 to 4 stools a day”.

D. “Frequently, bowel movements are needed to reduce sodium level”.

Q. A client with hypertension asks the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop to normal levels?

1 point

A. Kidneys’ excretion to sodium only.

B. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and water.

C. Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water.

D. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and excretion of water.

Q. Nurse Nikki knows that laboratory results supports the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is:

1 point

A. Elevated serum complement level

B. Thrombocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate

C. Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer

D. Leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

Q. Arnold, a 19-year-old client with a mild concussion is discharged from the emergency department. Before discharge, he complains of a headache. When offered acetaminophen, his mother tells the nurse the headache is severe and she would like her son to have something stronger. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

1 point

A. “Your son had a mild concussion, acetaminophen is strong enough.”

B. “Aspirin is avoided because of the danger of Reye’s syndrome in children or young adults.”

C. “Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition.”

D. Stronger medications may lead to vomiting, which increases the intracranial pressure (ICP).”

Q. A 40 year old lady comes to emergency department with history of severe stomach pain due to peptic ulcer disease of the stomach. Most likely nervous structure involved in this case is

1 point

Ventral roots of the spinal nerve

Greater splanchnic nerve

Lower intercostal nerve

Vagus nerve

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Q. The toddler is admitted with a cardiac anomaly. The nurse is aware that the infant with a ventricular septal defect will

1 point

Tired easily

Be more susceptible to viral infections

Grow normally

Need more calories

Q. Which clinical indicator should the nurse identify before scheduling a client for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

1 point

Urine output

Serum glucose

Bilirubin level

Blood pressure

Q. The first referral level in the healthcare system is

1 point

Primordial health care

Secondary health care

Tertiary health care

Primary health care

Q. The staple food of villages of 3000 population is maize. These villagers are at risk for

1 point

Pellagra

Beri beri

Bitot's spot

Scurvy

Q. Disorder caused by lack of insulin

1 point

Diabetes Insipidus

Hypercortism

Diabetes Mellitus

Goitre

Q. Most comfortable position for patient with cardiac asthma

1 point

Prone position

High Fowler position

Supine position

Cardiac position

Q. How much oxygen a nurse should give to a patient with chronic respiratory failure

1 point

10 liters/min with nasal mask

12 liters/min with nasal prongs

1 liter/min with nasal prongs

2 liters/min with nasal mask

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Q. A chronic alcoholic blames the family environment as a cause of his alcoholism. This is phenomenon of

1 point

Projection

Rationalization

Sublimation

Denial

Q. Uterine artery arises from

1 point

Ovarian artery

Posterior division of internal iliac artery

Anterior division of internal iliac artery

Obturator artery

Q. The nurse is performing the Glasgow coma scale on a client.The assessment is as follows: eye opening to pain; motor response, localizes pain; verbal response, inappropriate words. The nurse interprets which score is correct for this client

1 point

9

12

10

11

Q. Name of the duodenal hormone

1 point

Cholecystokinin

Gastric inhibiting peptide

Gastrin

Acid pepsin

Q. What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?

1 point

A. Cardiomegaly

B. Cardiomyopathy

C. Myocarditis

D. Pericarditis

Q. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate?

1 point

A. Dilated aorta

B. Normally functioning heart

C. Decreased myocardial contractility

D. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole

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Q. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer?

1 point

A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts

B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin

C. Bloody discharge from the nipple

D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle

Q. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?

1 point

A. Joint pain

B. Joint deformity

C. Joint flexion of less than 50%

D. Joint stiffness

Q. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs, wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in a case of

1 point

Psoriasis

Impetigo

Scabies

Herpes zoster

Q. Which action confirms that the nurse is using Z technique to administer iron injection

1 point

Creators a z shaped grid on the abdomen and injects each dose daily

Pulls skin downward or laterally before inserting the needle

Uses special syringe to administer injection

Uses the anterior lateral aspect of the thigh to inject

Q. Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

1 point

A. Abdominal pain

B. Absent pedal pulses

C. Angina

D. Lower back pain

Q. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

1 point

A. Abdominal X-ray

B. Arteriogram

C. CT scan

D. Ultrasound

Q. When assessing a client for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which area of the abdomen is most commonly palpated?

1 point

A. Right upper quadrant

B. Directly over the umbilicus

C. Middle lower abdomen to the left of the midline

D. Midline lower abdomen to the right of the midline

Q. Which action should be anticipate in a client who has been diagnosed with ARDS

1 point

Tracheostomy

Mechanical ventilation

Insertion of a chest tube

Use of a nasal cannula

Q. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?

1 point

A. Pericarditis

B. Hypertension

C. Obliterative

D. Restrictive

Q. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?

1 point

A. Antihypertensive

B. Beta-adrenergic blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Nitrates

Q. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

1 point

A. Liver

B. Colon

C. Reproductive tract

D. White blood cells (WBCs)

Q. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings for contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?

1 point

A. Joint pain

B. Joint deformity

C. Joint flexion of less than 50%

D. Joint stiffness

Q. QRS complex indicates

1 point

Atrial repolarization

Ventricular depolarization

Atrial depolarization

Ventricular repolarization

Q. Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?

1 point

A. DM

B. HPN

C. PVD

D. Syphilis

Q. Which of the following complications of an abdominal aortic repair is indicated by detection of a hematoma in the perineal area?

1 point

A. Hernia

B. Stage 1 pressure ulcer

C. Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site

D. Rapid expansion of the aneurysm

Q. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childbirth?

1 point

A. Dilated

B. Hypertrophic

C. Myocarditis

D. Restrictive

Q. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?

1 point

A. Heart failure

B. DM

C. MI

D. Pericardial effusion

Q. Pentavalent vaccine will NOT protect a baby against the following disease:

1 point

A. Hepatitis

B. Pertussis

C. Polio

D. Diphtheria

Q. An android pelvis is one which has:

1 point

A. Kidney shaped brim

B. 5th lumbar vertebra fused to sacrum

C. Heart shaped brim

D. Ovoid brim

Q. Which of the following correctly lists the items from smallest to largest?

1 point

A. DNA, genome, chromosome, gene

B. DNA, gene, chromosome, genome

C. Genome, gene, DNA, chromosome

D. Gene, genome, DNA, chromosome

Q. The normal head circumference in a new born baby is:

1 point

A. 35-40 cm

B. 33-35 cm

C. 20-30 cm

D. 45-50 cm

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Q. Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is bacteriostatic?

1 point

A. Streptomycin

B. Ethambutol

C. Rifampicin

D. INH

Q. The bones common to face and cranium are

1 point

1. Parietal

2. Frontal

3. Temporal

4. Palatine

Q. The number of carpals per limb of human beings is

1 point

1.5

2.6

3.7

4.8

Q. Long neck of camel or Giraffe has

1 point

1. Numerous cervical vertebrae

2. Development of extra large intervertebral pads

3. Longer vertebrae

4. Development of extra bony plates between adjacent cervical vertebrae

Q. The number of tarsals per limb of human being is

1 point

1.5

2.6

3.7

4.8

Q. Number of bones present in a leg of human being is

1 point

1.25

2.30

3.35

4.40

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Q. The floating ribs are

1 point

1. 11 and 12

2.9 and 10

3.7 and 8

4.1 and 2

Q. A deltoid ridge occurs in

1 point

1. Radius

2. Ulna

3. Femur

4. Humerus

Q. Gorilla rib is

1 point

1. Extra floating rib

2. Extra false rib

3. Extra true rib

4. First false rib

Q. _________ is added to water to remove temporary hardness.

1 point

Calcium hydroxide

Ion exchange resins

Sodium carbonate

Calcium carbonate

Q. _________ is added to water to remove temporary hardness.

1 point

Calcium hydroxide

Ion exchange resins

Sodium carbonate

Calcium carbonate

Q. Which of the following statements about the rights of children in India is false?

1 point

A child has the right for physical emotional and social development

A child’s right to survival begins from birth

A child has the right to be protected against all sorts of abuse

A child has the right to participate in any decision directly involving himself

Q. The incubation period of influenza is

1 point

1-2 days

1-2 weeks

15-20 days

1-6 months

Q. The following is an advice given to an ante natal woman

1 point

Do not wear cotton garments

Do not eat fruits in early pregnancy

Do not take vitamin supplements

Do not take over the counter medicines

Q. Ratio of cardiac compression to ventilation in giving basic life support for an adult is

1 point

15 : 2

20 : 2

30 : 2

40 : 2

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Q. The relationship of foetal head and limb to it’s trunk is ___________

1 point

Attitude

Lie

Presentation

Polarity

Q. Which of the following statements about the rights of children in India is false?

1 point

A child has the right for physical emotional and social development

A child’s right to survival begins from birth

A child has the right to be protected against all sorts of abuse

A child has the right to participate in any decision directly involving himself

Q. The incubation period of influenza is

1 point

1-2 days

1-2 weeks

15-20 days

1-6 months

Q. The following is an advice given to an ante natal woman

1 point

Do not wear cotton garments

Do not eat fruits in early pregnancy

Do not take vitamin supplements

Do not take over the counter medicines

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Q. Ratio of cardiac compression to ventilation in giving basic life support for an adult is

1 point

15 : 2

20 : 2

30 : 2

40 : 2

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Q. The relationship of foetal head and limb to it’s trunk is ___________

1 point

Attitude

Lie

Presentation

Polarity

Q. The nurse is admitting a 4 year old with a possible meningococcal infection. Which type of isolation is indicated

1 point

Airborne precautions

Standard precautions

Contact precautions

Droplet precautions

Q. A failure in professional duty, skill or practice that leads to injury or harm to the client is

1 point

Assault

Torture

Crime

Malpractice

Q. In a patient allergic to beta lactam antibiotics, which of following drug is safe to administer

1 point

Cefazoline

Amoxicillin

Vancomycin

Penicillin

Q. Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would expect to:

1 point

A. Administer Kayexalate

B. Restrict foods high in protein

C. Increase oral intake of cheese and milk.

D. Administer large amounts of normal saline via I.V.

Q. What is Inner Lining of the Alimentary Canal Called

1 point

Muscle

Muscular

Oesophagus

Mucous Membrane

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Q. The nurse is aware the early indicator of hypoxia in the unconscious client is:

1 point

A. Cyanosis

B. Increased respirations

C. Hypertension

D. Restlessness

Q. A client is experiencing spinal shock. Nurse Myrna should expect the function of the bladder to be which of the following?

1 point

A. Normal

B. Atonic

C. Spastic

D. Uncontrolled

Q. Which of the following stages is the carcinogen irreversible?

1 point

A. Progression stage

B. Initiation stage

C. Regression stage

D. Promotion stage

Q. A 22-year-old client suffered from his first tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening, the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? Which of the following would the nurse include in the primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults more than 20 years?

1 point

A. Electrolyte imbalance

B. Head trauma

C. Epilepsy

D. Congenital defect

Q. Nurse Judith obtains a specimen of clear nasal drainage from a client with a head injury. Which of the following tests differentiates mucus from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

1 point

A. Protein

B. Specific gravity

C. Glucose

D. Microorganism

Q. A fracture in which one bone breaks into many parts and some of the pieces protrude out of injured skin is known as

1 point

1. Green stick fracture

2. Comminuted fracture

3. Compound fracture

4. Evulsion fracture

Q. Atlas vertebra of man is characterized by the presence of

1 point

1. Proceolous centrum

2. Acoelous centrum

3. Amphicoelous centrum

4. Absence of centrum

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Q. A simple crack in the bone when the two parts of the bone remain together is called

1 point

1. Green stick fracture

2.Simple fracture

3.Comminuted fracture

4.Compound fracture

Q. Which nursing action is most important while caring for a client after cardiac catheterization

1 point

Provide rest

Administer oxygen

Check the pulse distal to the puncture site

Monitor electrocardiogram every 15 minutes

Q. Snellen's chart is read from a distance of

1 point

6 feet

20 feet

24 feet

14 feet

Q. Cardiac catheterization means

1 point

It is used to measure cardiac chamber pressure

It is an invasive procedure

It is used to assess the patency of coronary arteries

All the above

Q. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?

1 point

A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors

B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status

C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition

D. Risk for Side effects related to medical therapy

Q. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

1 point

A. Document the seizure

B. Perform neurologic checks

C. Take the patient’s vital signs

D. Restrain the patient for protection

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Q. During the first year of life the child is said to go through the which stage

5 points

Oral

Anal

Genital

Phallic

Q. The nurse is aware the early indicator of hypoxia in the unconscious client is:

5 points

A. Cyanosis

B. Increased respirations

C. Hypertension

D. Restlessness

Q. A client is experiencing spinal shock. Nurse Myrna should expect the function of the bladder to be which of the following?

5 points

A. Normal

B. Atonic

C. Spastic

D. Uncontrolled

Q. What is the priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with thrombotic CVA?

5 points

A. Pupil size and pupillary response

B. Cholesterol level

C. Echocardiogram

D. Bowel sounds

Q. Marina with acute renal failure moves into the diuretic phase after one week of therapy. During this phase the client must be assessed for signs of developing:

1 point

A. Hypovolemia

B. Renal failure

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Hyperkalemia

Teg- 

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