RESPIRATORY SYSTEM IMPORTANT QUESTION SERIES 1 : AIIMSHACKS blog brings Staff nurse exam Modal Paper, which is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam like AIIMS, JIPMER, PGIMER, GMCH, DSSSB, RRB, RUHS, BHU, AMU, SCTIMST, KPSC, RPSC, HPSSSB, HSSC, IGNOU ESIC and All govt Staff nurse exam .
1. The acid fast microorganism is :
(a) Vibrio cholarae
(b) M.tuberculi
(c) Paseudomonas
(d) K.pneumonae
ANS- (b) M.tuberculi
2. An asthmatic patient is admitted in a ward a nursing officer should be more alert regarding :
(a) Pulse pressure
(b) Pulse deficit
(c) Pulse paradoxus
(d) Bounding pulse
ANS- (c) Pulse paradoxus
3. Which is not clinical finding of asthmatic patient
(a) Wheezing
(b) Diaphoresis
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Tachypnea
ANS- (c) Bradycardia
4. During asthmatic attack the appropriate positioning given to the client is :
(a) High fowler’s positioning
(b) Semi fowler’s positioning
(c) Supine with head elevated
(d) Sitting with neck flexed
ANS- (a) High fowler’s positioning
5. Removal of the fibrin mass & inflammatory cell from the pleural cavity is known as :
(a) Decortications
(b) Pleurodesis
(c) Pleruectomy
(d) Thoracentesis
ANS- (a) Decortications
6. A client having knife kike chest pain aggravated by coughing & deep & deep breathing the most probable diagnosis is :
(a) Angina
(b) Myocardial infarction
(c) Pleurisy
(d) Empyema
ANS- (c) Pleurisy
7. A pleurisy patient admitted in a hospital the most appropriate positioning given by nursing officer is :
(a) Side lateral on unaffected side
(b) Side lateral on affected side
(c) Semi –fowler’s
(d) Prone
ANS- (b) Side lateral on affected side
8. A 25 year old football player got fracture of femur which respiratory problem may occur to player :
(a) Pleurisy
(b) Pulmonary embolis
(c) Emphysema
(d) None of above
ANS- (b) Pulmonary embolis
9. A patient admitted in emergency department with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism the drug started by the physician is :
(a) Heparin therapy
(b) STK therapy
(c) TPA therapy
(d) Insulin therapy
ANS- (c) TPA therapy
10. The route of transmission of histoplasmosis is :
(a) Waterborne oral transmission
(b) Inhalation
(c) Blood borne
(d) Skin contact
ANS- (b) Inhalation
11. The effective medications for a patient infected with histoplasma capsulatum is :
(a) Antiviral
(b) Antibacterial
(c) Antiprotozoal
(d) Antifungal
ANS- (d) Antifungal
12. The confirmatory test to diagnose the tuberculosis is :
(a) Tuberculine test
(b) Quantiferon TB gold test
(c) X-ray chest
(d) Sputum culture
ANS- (d) Sputum culture
13. Influenza vaccination is contraindicated in the clients have :
(a) Age more than 50 years
(b) Immunocompromised patients
(c) Egg allergies
(d) Health care personnel providing care to such patients
ANS- (c) Egg allergies
14. The causative organism of swine flu is:
(a) H5 N 1
(b) H1 N 1
(c) Arbovirus
(d) Aedes agypti
ANS- (b) H1 N 1
15. The term rhinorrhea means:
(a) Menstrual disorder
(b) Urinary incontinency
(c) Nasal discharges
(d) None of above
ANS- (c) Nasal discharges
16. To determine the previous exposure to tuberculosis the appropriate test is :
(a) X-ray chest
(b) Sputum culture
(c) Mantoux test
(d) TB gold test
ANS- (c) Mantoux test
17. The quantity of tuberculine units in mantaux test is
(a) 3 units
(b) 4 units
(c) 5 units
(d) 6 units
ANS- (b) 4 units
18. A nursing officer doing intratracheal suctioning of aventilator patient he should keep in mind thatsuctioning should not be done more than :
(a) 5 sec
(b) 10 sec
(c) 20 sec
(d) 1 min
ANS- (b) 10 sec
19. Audible high pitched sound produced due to fluid collection in to airway is known as :
(a) Stridor
(b) Crackels
(c) Wheezing
(d) All of above
ANS- (b) Crackels
20. The most common causative organism of epiglottitis is :
(a) Vibrio cholera
(b) H.influenza
(c) M. Tuberculi
(d) Arbovirus
ANS- (b) H.influenza
21. A positive reaction to mantoux test indicates that :
(a) The individual has active tuberculosis
(b) The individual has developed immunity to tuberculosis
(c) The individual has been exposed to tuberculosis
(d) The individual will develop active tuberculosis in near future
ANS- (c) The individual has been exposed to tuberculosis
22. Which of the following sign and symptoms are usually found in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis :
(a) Dyspnea chest pain and fever with chills
(b) Fever headache vomiting and photophobia
(c) High fever upper respiratory tract infections and headache
(d) Low grade fever fatigue night sweat and hemoptysis
ANS- (d) Low grade fever fatigue night sweat and hemoptysis
23. Which of the following diagnostic tests confirms pulmonary tuberculosis
(a) Chest X-ray
(b) Sputum for AFB
(b) Mantoux test
(d) Blood culture
ANS- (b) Sputum for AFB
24. A patient with multidrug resistant tuberculosis is under multiple antibiotic therapy the patient will be considered as non-infectious when the patient must :
(a) Remain afebrile for 5 day
(b) Show a negative blood culture
(c) Show a white blood cell that is within normal limits
(d) Show negative daily sputum culture for 3 consecutive days
ANS- (d) Show negative daily sputum culture for 3 consecutive days
25. A patient with multidrug resistant tuberculosis is being treated with multiple antibiotic which of the following evaluation criteria would indicate that the patient is not responding to the treatment :
(a) Patient is afebrile for a week
(b) Patient has non-productive cough
(c) Increasing infiltrates or cavity formation on chest x-ray
(d) Negative AFB in sputum
ANS- (c) Increasing infiltrates or cavity formation on chest x-ray
26. A patient is undergoing treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis the physician prescribed isoniazide preventive therapy consists of :
(a) 300 mg of the drug weekly for 9 months
(b) 300 mg of the drug twice a week 6-12 months
(c) 300 mg of the drug daily for 6-12 months
(d) 300 mg of the drug daily for 2-4 months
ANS- (c) 300 mg of the drug daily for 6-12 months
27. Treatment for patient with uncomplicated pulmonary tuberculosis is started with which of the following combinations of pharmacologic agents :
(a) Rifampicin isoniazide pyrazinamide and either ethambutol or streptomycin
(b) Rifampicin isoniazide and pyrazinamide
(c) Rifampicin isoniazide thiacetazone
(d) Isoniazide pyrazinamide streptomycin para aminosalicylic acid
ANS- (a) Rifampicin isoniazide pyrazinamide and either ethambutol or streptomycin
28. A primary tuberculosis infection which remain dormant for a long time due to body immune response may progress to active disease for which of the following factors :
(a) HIV infection
(b) Substance abuse
(c) Malabsorption syndrome
(d) All of the above
ANS- (d) All of the above
29. Which of the following is the most important risk factor for lung cancer :
(a) Cigarette smoking
(b) Working in asbestos industry
(c) Genetic predisposition
(d) Exposure to low level radiation
ANS- (a) Cigarette smoking
30. Which of the following types of lung cancer are considered to have a better prognosis because it is resectable :
(a) Squamous cell carcinoma
(b) Adenocarcinoma
(c) Large cell carcinoma
(d) Small cell carcinoma
ANS- (a) Squamous cell carcinoma
31. Which of the following is the warning singal of lung cancer :
(a) Persistent cough
(b) Sputum streaked with blood
(c) Unexplained dyspnea
(d) All of the above
ANS- (d) All of the above
32. Which of the following is one of the earliest manifestations of lung cancer
(a) Hemoptysis
(b) Persistent pneumonitis
(c) Weight loss
(d) Hoarseness
ANS- (b) Persistent pneumonitis
33. Which of the following diagnostic procedures most accurately confirms diagnosis of lung cancer :
(a) Chest X-ray
(b)Bronchoscopy
(c) Cytologic studies of early morning sputum specimen
(d) Surgical biopsy
ANS- (d) Surgical biopsy
34. Physician is planning a wedge resection for a patient with lung cancer the nurse explains to the patient that a wedge resection means removal of :
(a) A small localized area containing the tumor near the surface of the lung
(b) One segment of the lung including a bronchiole and it alyeoli
(c) A lobe of the lung
(d) One entire lung
ANS- (a) A small localized area containing the tumor near the surface of the lung
35. Following removal of an entire lung in pneumonectomy the side of the thoracic cavity:
(a) Remains empty
(b) Fills with serous fluid which eventually consolidates the region
(c) The space is filled with a synthetic gel
(d) The mediastinum heart remaining lung and diaphragm shift to the affected side ot fill the space
ANS- (b) Fills with serous fluid which eventually consolidates the region
36. A patient is scheduled to undergo chest surgery and insertion of a chest tube attached to water seal drainage during preoperative teaching the nurse explains to the patient that the purpose of chest tubes is to :
(a) Allow for the removel of fluid and air
(b) Make deep breathing and coughing easier
(c) Prevent rapid expansion of the lung
(d) Control internal hemorrhage
ANS- (a) Allow for the removel of fluid and air
37. Immediate treatment of dog bite :
(a) Suturing
(b) Application of antiseptic
(c) Wash the wound with soap and water
(d) Send the hospital
ANS- (c) Wash the wound with soap and water
38. It is suspected that a newborn may be developing respiratory distress when the nurse observes
(a) Flaring nares
(b) Respirations of 40 breaths /min
(c) Abdominal respirations
(d) Acrocyanosis
ANS- (a) Flaring nares
39. Who is considered as father of group therapy :
(a) Sigmond freud
(b) Joseph wolpe
(c) Aron bech
(d) Joseph pratt
ANS-(d) Joseph pratt
40. When assessing a child with chronic hypoxia the nurse should monitor for :
(a) Decreased RBC count
(b) Clubbing of fingers
(c) Suscutaneous haemorrhages
(d) Slow irregular respirations
ANS- (d) Slow irregular respirations
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