AIIMS NORCET Exam mock Test part-124 : AIIMSHACKS blog brings Staff nurse exam Modal Paper, which is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam like AIIMS, JIPMER, NORCET exam , CHO, PGIMER, GMCH, DSSSB, RRB, RUHS, BHU, AMU, SCTIMST, KPSC, RPSC, HPSSSB, HSSC, IGNOU ESIC and All govt Staff nurse exam
AIIMS Nursing Officer Previous Question Papers With Answers
Q 1: Projectile vomiting is a feature of
A.Cholera
B. Intussusception
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Correct answer- Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Rational
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis- Progressive non bilious vomiting with is the initial symptom of pyloric stenosis.
Esophageal atresia- Frothing and bubbling at the mouth and nose after birth as well as episodes of cyanosis and respiratory distress.
Cholera- Profuse watery diarrhea with a fishy smell is seen.
Q2: Epidemiology is the
A. Study of community health nursing
B. Study of prevention strategies
C. Study of diseases
D. Study of bacteria
Correct answer- Study of diseases
Rational
Epidemiology is the study of diseases.
According to John Murray, epidemiology is the study of frequency, distribution and determinants of health related states or events in a defined population and its application to control or prevent the disease or health related events
Q3: Normal adult heart rate is
A. 40-60
B. 60-90
C. 120
D. 120-160
Correct answer- 60-90
Rational
Normal adult heart rate - 60-100 beats/min.
Normal newborn heart rate - 120-160 beats/min.
Normal infant heart rate - 120-150 beats/min.
Q4: The best cost effective method for control of T.B.
A. Health education
B. DOTS
C. Pencillin
D. All of the above
Correct answer- DOTS
Q5: Calorie intake of 1 year old child
A. 800 Kcal/day
B. 1000 Kcal/day
C. 1200 Kcal/day
D. 1500 Kcal/day
Correct answer- 1000 Kcal/day
Q6: In the prevention of communicable disease the primary level of prevention results from
A. Immunization
B. Early diagnosis
C. Treatment of disease
D. All of the above
Q7: Which of the following disease condition are spread by droplet infection, except
A. Swine Flu
B. Covid-19
C. Mumps
D. None of the above
Correct answer- None of the above
Rational
All the following disease are transmitted via droplet infection
Q 8: Increased levels of thyroid releasing hormone is secreted in
A. Thyroid cancer
B. Tetany
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer- Hypothyroidism
Rational
In hypothyroidism - TRH increase, T3,T4 decrease.
In hyperthyroidism - TSH decrease, T3-T4 increase.
Q9: After vesicovaginal fistula repair important intervention is
A. Adequate rest
B. Antibiotics
C. Early ambulation
D. Avoid urine collection in bladder
Correct answer- Avoid urine collection in bladder
Rational
Vasicovaginal fistula intervention are:
- Avoid urine collection in urinary bladder.
- - Oestrogen replacement theory.
- Sitz bath.
- - Avoid intercourse.
Q10: The patient with appendicitis usually exhibit the following clinical manifestations
A. Hematemesis or melena
B. Heartburn, regurgitations and dysphogia
C. Pain occurs immediately after eating
D. Rebound tenderness at the McBurney's point
Correct answer- Rebound tenderness at the McBurney's point
Rational
Appendicitis clinical manifestations are:
Rebound tenderness and pain at McBurney's point
Abdominal pain in right lower quadrant
Chills, fever
Loss of appetite etc.
A.Cholera
B. Intussusception
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Correct answer- Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Rational
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis- Progressive non bilious vomiting with is the initial symptom of pyloric stenosis.
Esophageal atresia- Frothing and bubbling at the mouth and nose after birth as well as episodes of cyanosis and respiratory distress.
Cholera- Profuse watery diarrhea with a fishy smell is seen.
Q2: Epidemiology is the
A. Study of community health nursing
B. Study of prevention strategies
C. Study of diseases
D. Study of bacteria
Correct answer- Study of diseases
Rational
Epidemiology is the study of diseases.
According to John Murray, epidemiology is the study of frequency, distribution and determinants of health related states or events in a defined population and its application to control or prevent the disease or health related events
Q3: Normal adult heart rate is
A. 40-60
B. 60-90
C. 120
D. 120-160
Correct answer- 60-90
Rational
Normal adult heart rate - 60-100 beats/min.
Normal newborn heart rate - 120-160 beats/min.
Normal infant heart rate - 120-150 beats/min.
Q4: The best cost effective method for control of T.B.
A. Health education
B. DOTS
C. Pencillin
D. All of the above
Correct answer- DOTS
Q5: Calorie intake of 1 year old child
A. 800 Kcal/day
B. 1000 Kcal/day
C. 1200 Kcal/day
D. 1500 Kcal/day
Correct answer- 1000 Kcal/day
Q6: In the prevention of communicable disease the primary level of prevention results from
A. Immunization
B. Early diagnosis
C. Treatment of disease
D. All of the above
Q7: Which of the following disease condition are spread by droplet infection, except
A. Swine Flu
B. Covid-19
C. Mumps
D. None of the above
Correct answer- None of the above
Rational
All the following disease are transmitted via droplet infection
Q 8: Increased levels of thyroid releasing hormone is secreted in
A. Thyroid cancer
B. Tetany
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer- Hypothyroidism
Rational
In hypothyroidism - TRH increase, T3,T4 decrease.
In hyperthyroidism - TSH decrease, T3-T4 increase.
Q9: After vesicovaginal fistula repair important intervention is
A. Adequate rest
B. Antibiotics
C. Early ambulation
D. Avoid urine collection in bladder
Correct answer- Avoid urine collection in bladder
Rational
Vasicovaginal fistula intervention are:
- Avoid urine collection in urinary bladder.
- - Oestrogen replacement theory.
- Sitz bath.
- - Avoid intercourse.
Q10: The patient with appendicitis usually exhibit the following clinical manifestations
A. Hematemesis or melena
B. Heartburn, regurgitations and dysphogia
C. Pain occurs immediately after eating
D. Rebound tenderness at the McBurney's point
Correct answer- Rebound tenderness at the McBurney's point
Rational
Appendicitis clinical manifestations are:
Rebound tenderness and pain at McBurney's point
Abdominal pain in right lower quadrant
Chills, fever
Loss of appetite etc.
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Q11: Which of the following antituberculosis drugs can damage the 8th cranial nerve
A. Ethambutol hydrochloride
B. Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid (INH)
D. Paraoaminosalicylic acid (PAS)
Correct answer- Streptomycin
Rational
Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside and damage on the 8th cranial nerve (ototoxicity) is a common side effect of aminoglycosides.
Q12: Which of these patient is at risk for fluid volume excess
A. Decreased aldosterone production
B. Renal Failure
C. Restricted salt intake
D. Chronic diarrhoea
Correct answer- Renal Failure
Rational
Renal failure, as kidneys are responsible for filtering excessive fluids and waste material from blood.
Q11: Which of the following antituberculosis drugs can damage the 8th cranial nerve
A. Ethambutol hydrochloride
B. Streptomycin
C. Isoniazid (INH)
D. Paraoaminosalicylic acid (PAS)
Correct answer- Streptomycin
Rational
Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside and damage on the 8th cranial nerve (ototoxicity) is a common side effect of aminoglycosides.
Q12: Which of these patient is at risk for fluid volume excess
A. Decreased aldosterone production
B. Renal Failure
C. Restricted salt intake
D. Chronic diarrhoea
Correct answer- Renal Failure
Rational
Renal failure, as kidneys are responsible for filtering excessive fluids and waste material from blood.
Q13: Which of the following medication is administered sublingually for managing angina pectoris
A. Warfarin
B. Asprin
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Betaloc
Correct answer- Nitroglycerine
Rational
Nitroglycerine drug of choice for angina pectoris, administered through sublingually for faster absorption.
Q15: A clinical sign that indicates the beginning of second stage of labour is
A. Bearing down reflex
B. Passage of mucus plug
C. Gush of dark blood
D. Change in uterine shape
Correct answer- Bearing down reflex
Q 16: HbA1C indicates post serum glucose levels over previous
A. 1 month period
B. 2 month period
C. 3 month period
D. 6 month period
Correct answer- 3 month period
Q 17: BCG vaccine is given to protect the child against
A. Tetanus
B. Typhoid
C. Diphtheria
D. Tuberculosis
Correct answer- Tuberculosis
Q 18: In following image an indicates
A. BB stirrup
B. Pulley
C. K stirrup
D. Bohlars stirrup
Correct answer- Bohlars stirrup
Q 19: A 55 years old male patient who is diagnosed with an evolving myocardial infarction (MI) insists on going home. The nurse encourages the patient to be admitted, because the greatest risk within the first 24 hours of sustaining an MI is
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Ventricular aneurysm
C. Sudden death
D. Heart failure
Correct answer- Sudden death
Q20: An adult is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting. Her breathing is now slow and shallow. What acid base imbalance does the nurse suspect
A. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
B. Metabolic acidosis with little respiratory compensation
C. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D. Respiratory alkalosis with little metabolic compensation
Correct answer- Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
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Q 21: The ability to walk along a straight line is most often impaired with
A. Temporal lobe damage
B. Ocular motor disturbances
C. Cerebellar dysfunction
D. Parietal lobe damage
Correct answer- Cerebellar dysfunction
Q22: Which of the following risk factors can lead to chronic gastritis
A. Age
B. Antibiotic uses
C. Helicobacter pylori infection
D. Gallbladder disease
Correct answer- Helicobacter pylori infection
Q. 23: Maternity nurse, must be aware that screening for diabetes mellitus in pregnancy is done at
A. 18 to 23 weeks
B. 24 to 28 weeks
C. 6 to 17 weeks
D. 29 to 32 weeks
Correct answer- 24 to 28 weeks
Rational
Gestational diabetes mellitus assessed at the 24-28 week of gestational.
Q24: A woman is hospitalized with mild preeclampsia. The nurse is formulating a plan of care for this client, which nursing care is least likely to be done
A. Absolute bed rest.
B. Daily weight
C. Reflexes once per shift
D. Vital signs and FHR and rhythm
Correct answer- Daily weight
Rational
Although reducing environment stimuli and activity is necessary for a woman with mild preeclampsia, she will most probably have bathroom privileges.
Q25: Whooping cough is caused by bacterial infections causing running nose like symptoms. What is another name given to it
A. Diphtheria
B. Rubella
C. Pertussis
D. Asthma
Correct answer- Pertussis
Rational
Symptoms of whooping cough are cold, runny nose, cough which sounds like 'whoop' etc.
It is a very contagious disease and caused by an organism called Bordetella pertussis, therefore, another name is pertussis.
Q26 : Which committee is known as the Health Survey and Planning Committee
A. Shrivastava Committee
B. Mudaliar Committee
C. Kartar Committee
D. Bhore Committee
Correct answer -Mudaliar Committee
Rational
The Health Survey and Planning Committee is also known as Mudaliar Committee.
Shrivastava Committee: This committee is also known as a group on medical education and support manpower.
Kartar Committee: This committee is also known as a committee on multipurpose workers under health and family planning.
Bhore Committee: This committee is also known as health survey and development committee.
Q27: The 'P' wave on the ECG corresponds to
A. Ventricular depolarisation
B. Ventricular repolarisation
C. Atrial depolarisation
D. Atrial repolarisation
Correct answer- Atrial depolarisation
Rational
P wave in ECG indicate - atrial depolarization.
QRS complex indicate - ventricular depolarization.
T wave indicate - ventricular repolarization.
Q28: Hormone secreted by the testes:
A. Pitocin
B. Androgens
C. Progesterone
D. Oestrogen
Correct answer- Androgens
Q29: Ripeness of cervix is assessed with
A. Pantograph
B. GCS score
C. Bishop score
D. APGAR score
Correct answer- Bishop score
Rational
Bishop score used to assess the induction of labour. It include
-Dilation
--Effacement
-Station
--Consistency
-Position.
Q30: During the first year of life the child is said to go through the which stage
A. Oral
B. Anal
C. Genital
D. Phallic
Correct answer- Oral
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Q31 : What is Inner Lining of the Alimentary Canal Called
A. Muscle
B. Muscular
C. Oesophagus
D. Mucous Membrane
Correct answer- Mucous Membrane
Q31 : Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is by using
A. Succinylcholine (Sch)
B. Atropine
C. Edrophonium
D. Neostigmine
Correct answer- Edrophonium
Q32 : Features of cardiac tamponade include each of the following, except
A. Raised JV
B. Bradycardia
C. Narrow pulse pressure
D. Pulsusparadous
Correct answer- Bradycardia
Q33 : The part of Fallopian tube in which ectopic pregnancy is the commonest
A. Fimbria
B. Cornua
C. Ampulla
D. Isthmus
Correct answer- Ampulla
Q34: Features of Kussmaul respiration are
A. Laboured respiration with increased rate
B. Abnormally deep,regular with increased respiration
C. Respiration ceases for more than 20 seconds
D. Regular but abnormally slow respiration
Correct answer- Abnormally deep,regular with increased respiration
Q35 : All of the below are signs of cardiopulmonary arrest, except
A. Immediate loss of consciousness
B. Dilation of pupil
C. Constriction of pupil
D. Absence of pulse
Correct answer- Constriction of pupil
Q36 : Polyvalent vaccines consist of
A. A single organism
B. A single species
C. More strains of different species
D. More strains of the same species
Correct answer- More strains of the same species
Rational
Polyvalent vaccine consist of more strain of the same species.
Monovalent vaccine consist single strain of a single antigen.
Q37: The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorder is
A. Obsessive behaviour
B. Antisocial conduct
C. Confusion between fantasy and reality
D. Over whelming anxiety
Correct answer- Confusion between fantasy and reality
Q38 : Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the placenta through the process of
A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Facilitated transport
D. Diffusion
Correct answer- Diffusion
Rational
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the placenta through diffusion process.
Nutrition are transfer through the placenta by active transport.
Glucose transfer through placenta facilitated diffusion.
Q39: Process of water purification on a large scale
A. Storage, Filtration & Disinfection
B. Coagulation, Rapid mixing, flocculation
C. Raw H20, graded sand, Under drainage
D. None of the above
Correct answer- Storage, Filtration & Disinfection
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the placenta through diffusion process.
Nutrition are transfer through the placenta by active transport.
Glucose transfer through placenta facilitated diffusion.
Q39: Process of water purification on a large scale
A. Storage, Filtration & Disinfection
B. Coagulation, Rapid mixing, flocculation
C. Raw H20, graded sand, Under drainage
D. None of the above
Correct answer- Storage, Filtration & Disinfection
Q40 : What is the most serious complication of meningitis in young children
A. Peripheral circulatory collapse
B. Blindness
C. Communicating hydrocephalus
D. Epilepsy
Correct answer- Communicating hydrocephalus
AIIMS Delhi Nursing Officer Model Questions Paper
A. Peripheral circulatory collapse
B. Blindness
C. Communicating hydrocephalus
D. Epilepsy
Correct answer- Communicating hydrocephalus
AIIMS Delhi Nursing Officer Model Questions Paper
Q41: IMR and MMR are always calculated on
A. Live birth
B. Total birth
C. Estimated mid year population
D. All of the above
Correct answer- Total birth
Q42: Creating imaginary events to fill up the memory gap is known as
A. Neologism
B. Confabulation
C. Compulsion
D. Circumstantiality
Correct answer- Confabulation
A. Neologism
B. Confabulation
C. Compulsion
D. Circumstantiality
Correct answer- Confabulation
Q43: Composition of blood transfused to hemophilia patient is
A. Packed cells
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Correct answer- Cryoprecipitate
Rational
Haemophilia is a bleeding disorder.
Cryoprecipitate blood products are used to treat haemophilia A.
Q44: Which of the following is positive symptom of schizophrenia
A. Apathy
B. Delusion
C. Alogia
D. Stupor
Correct answer- Delusion
Haemophilia is a bleeding disorder.
Cryoprecipitate blood products are used to treat haemophilia A.
Q44: Which of the following is positive symptom of schizophrenia
A. Apathy
B. Delusion
C. Alogia
D. Stupor
Correct answer- Delusion
Rational
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are: Hallucination, Delusion.
Q45: The main clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema are as follows except
A. Cyanosis
B. Dyspnea
C. Caught with expectoration
D. Hypotension
Correct answer- Hypotension
Rational
Pulmonary edema symptoms are : Chest pain, Fast breathing, Dyspnea, Tachycardia, Cyanosis, Lungs Congestion, Restlessness.
Q46: A female client is taking laxatives. Nurse Linda informs the client that the following maybe experienced as side effects of this
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Abdominal cramps
C. Partial bowel obstruction
D. GI bleeding
Correct answer- Abdominal cramps
Rational
The most frequent side effects of Cascara Sagrada (Laxative) is abdominal cramps and nausea.
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are: Hallucination, Delusion.
Q45: The main clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema are as follows except
A. Cyanosis
B. Dyspnea
C. Caught with expectoration
D. Hypotension
Correct answer- Hypotension
Rational
Pulmonary edema symptoms are : Chest pain, Fast breathing, Dyspnea, Tachycardia, Cyanosis, Lungs Congestion, Restlessness.
Q46: A female client is taking laxatives. Nurse Linda informs the client that the following maybe experienced as side effects of this
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Abdominal cramps
C. Partial bowel obstruction
D. GI bleeding
Correct answer- Abdominal cramps
Rational
The most frequent side effects of Cascara Sagrada (Laxative) is abdominal cramps and nausea.
Q47: In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal
A. Obliterative
B. Restrictive
C. Dilated
D. Hypertrophic
Correct answer- Hypertrophic
Rational
Cardiac output is not affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the size of the ventricle remains relatively unchanged. Dilated cardiomyopathy, obliterative cardiomyopathy, and restrictive cardiomyopathy all decrease cardiac output.
Q48 : The appendix is located in
A. The left iliac fossa
B. The right iliac fossa
C. The right anti cubital fossa
D. The left anti cubital fossa
Correct answer- The right iliac fossa
Rational
Appendix located at right lower quadrant of stomach McBurney point.
Q49: The important nursing intervention prior to administration of pre anesthetic medication is
A. Shave the skin
B. Regulate IVF accurately
C. Ask patient to empty the bladder
D. Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
Correct answer- Ask patient to empty the bladder
A. Obliterative
B. Restrictive
C. Dilated
D. Hypertrophic
Correct answer- Hypertrophic
Rational
Cardiac output is not affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the size of the ventricle remains relatively unchanged. Dilated cardiomyopathy, obliterative cardiomyopathy, and restrictive cardiomyopathy all decrease cardiac output.
Q48 : The appendix is located in
A. The left iliac fossa
B. The right iliac fossa
C. The right anti cubital fossa
D. The left anti cubital fossa
Correct answer- The right iliac fossa
Rational
Appendix located at right lower quadrant of stomach McBurney point.
Q49: The important nursing intervention prior to administration of pre anesthetic medication is
A. Shave the skin
B. Regulate IVF accurately
C. Ask patient to empty the bladder
D. Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
Correct answer- Ask patient to empty the bladder
A. Obsessive behaviour
B. Antisocial conduct
C. Confusion between fantasy and reality
D. Over whelming anxiety
Correct answer- Confusion between fantasy and reality
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